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Management wants to modify Cisco TMS to allow users to configure the call behavior with their associated devices and dial from a single ID. Which feature needs to be enabled and configured? A. Smart Scheduler B. Low-touch Provisioning C. FindMe D. CMR Provisioning Answer: C
Video conference bridges accomplish their conferencing functionality by doing media transcoding or media switching. What are the three main advantages of media switching? (Choose three.) A. extremely low latency B. endpoints that can customize layouts C. the ability to upscale low-resolution video D. lower cost per port E. typically higher port capacity F. the ability for endpoints to connect at different bandwidth speeds and resolutions Answer: A, D, E
Which conference types can occur at anytime without the need for the conference to be scheduled, and can be created as permanent conferences? A. ad hoc conferences B. auto-dialed participants C. Multiway conferences D. scheduled conferences E. rendezvous conferences Answer: E
Which two Cisco TelePresence collaboration endpoints can improve communications, relationships, and user productivity? (Choose two.) A. Cisco WebEx Connect IM B. Cisco Digital Media Players C. Cisco DX650 D. Cisco MX300 G2 Answer: C, D
A customer reports that in a CTS1300 room, a microphone switches to a segment that has no one talking. Which step is first in the troubleshooting process? A. Replace the microphones to stop phantom switching. B. Reseat the microphone cables. C. Recalibrate the microphones. D. Reboot the codec. E. Replace the audio expansion box because the microphones connect to an AV expansion box. Answer: C
Which two Cisco TelePresence systems would be appropriate for an executive personal office? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Jabber B. Cisco IP Video Phone E20 C. Cisco TelePresence EX Series D. Cisco Jabber Video for TelePresence E. Cisco TelePresence System 500 Answer: C, E
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Share some Other Cisco Certifications 500-052 exam questions and answers below. Which subsystem processes connections between the Cisco Unified Contact Center Express server and the enterprise databases? A. Media B. Database C. Unified CM Telephony D. Configuration datastore Answer: B
Which step library is included in the license for Cisco Unified Contact Center Express Standard? A. document steps B. email steps C. ICM steps D. database steps Answer: A
What is the maximum number of agents that Cisco Unified Contact Center Express supports when it is deployed with Cisco Unified Communications Manager? A. 300 B. 150 C. 400 D. 50 Answer: A
In a high availability over WAN deployment, which option cannot be located across the WAN from the active Cisco Unified Contact Center Express site? A. SMTP server B. ASR or TTS servers C. wallboard server D. enterprise database Answer: B
What are the peripheral variables in the Set Enterprise Call Info step related to? A. call variables B. custom variables C. script parameters that are passed from the application configuration D. ECC variables Answer: A
In a high availability over WAN deployment, which option cannot be located across the WAN from the active Cisco Unified Contact Center Express site? A. SMTP server B. ASR or TTS servers C. wallboard server D. enterprise database Answer: B
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A new user has successfully registered Cisco Jabber. Which option verifies that the Jabber client is connected to all appropriate back-end systems? A. Show Connection Status B. Report A Problem C. Advanced Settings D. About Jabber E. Reset Jabber Answer: A
An engineer wants to ensure that Cisco Jabber clients can communicate with instant messaging clients who are not registered to the same Jabber cluster. Which technology meets this requirement? A. intercluster trunk B. federation C. SIP trunk D. PRI Answer: B
A field technician must reset a single 7965 IP phone so that it will be discovered on the network again and request an IP address from DCHP. Which steps should the network engineer provide? A. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * * * B. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial # # * # # C. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # * * D. Have field technician select the Settings button on phone, then dial * * # # # Answer: C
Which four fields must an administrator complete to create a new user in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose four.) A. Alias B. User type C. Extension D. Corporate email address E. First name F. Last name G. Employee ID H. Template Answer: A,B,C,H
Which option can an administrator use to add users to Cisco Unity Connection in different time zones? A. User Templates B. Call Handler Template C. Contact Template D. Directory Handler E. Interview Handler Answer: A
An engineer needs to block any outbound calls to specific numbers. Which dial plan element is used to restrict called numbers? A. partition B. route group C. route list D. calling search space Answer: D
Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.) A. Bulk administration tool B. LDAP C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL D. Outlook E. Presence F. Cisco Compatible Extensions Answer: A,B,C
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Share some CCNP 300-135 exam questions and answers below. The Fault Condition is related to which technology? A. BGP B. NAT C. IP NAT D. IPv4 OSPF Routing E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution F. IPv6 OSPF Routing G. IPv4 layer 3 security Answer: C
What is the solution of the fault condition? A. Under the ip access-list edge_security configuration add the permit ip 209.65.200.224 0.0.0.3 any command B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 enter the ip access-group edge_security out command. C. Under the ip access-list edge_security configuration delete the deny ip 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any command D. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration delete the ip access-group edge_security in command and enter the ip access group edge_security out command Answer: A
Ticket 4 NATACL
TROUBLE TICKET STATEMENT:
The implementation group has been using thetest bed to do a ¡®proof-of-concept¡¯that required both client 1 and client 2 to access the Web Server at 209.65.200.241.After several changed to interface status, network addressing, routing schemes and layer 2 connectivity, at trouble ticket has been opened indicating that client 1 cannot ping the 209.65.200.241 (internet Server). show run by yourself to obtain the following information: Configuration on R1 ip nat inside source list nat_pool interface Serial0/0/0/1 overload ! ip access-list standard nat_pool permit 10.1.0.0 ! interface Serial0/0/0/1 ip address 209.65.200.224 255.255.255.252 ip nat outside ! interfaceSerial0/0/0/0.12 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252 ip nat inside ip ospf message-digest-key 1 md5 TSHOOT ip ospd authentication message-digest
On Which device is the fault condition located? A. R1 B. R2 C. R3 D. R4 E. DSW1 F. DSW2 G. ASW1 Answer: A
The fault condition is related to which technology? A. NTP B. IPv4 OSPF Routing C. IPv6 OSPF Routing D. IPV4 and IPV6 Interoperability E. IPv4 layer 3 security Answer: D
The Fault Condition is related to which technology? A. BGP B. NTP C. IP NAT D. IPv4 OSPF Routing E. IPv4 OSPF Redistribution F. IPv6 OSPF Routing G. IPv4 layer 3 security Answer: A
Two routers are connected through PPP connection. After the PPP was established the admin put OSPF running above it. The OSPF formed adjacency but after soon the adjacency dropped. What is the reason? (The cause of OSPF forming an adjacency over a GRE tunnel and dropping immediately) A. MTU does not match B. Area 0 need to exist for OSPF to function properly C. Gre tunnel destination is not reachable through tunnel D. Gre tunnel ip address must be covered by network under ¡°router ospf 1¡± E. ospf routes contains the route to tunnel destination Answer: C
What is the solution of the fault condition? A. Under the interface Serial0/0/0 configuration enter the ip nat inside command B. Under the interface Serial0/0/1 configuration enter the ip nat outside command C. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 10.2.0.0 0.0.255.255 command D. Under the ip access-list standar nat_trafic configuration enter the permit 209.65.200.0 0.0.0.255 command Answer: C
What is the MTU¡¯s size in a GRE tunnel? A. 1630 B. 1476 C. 1500 D. 1900 Answer: B
The fault condition is related to which technology? A. NTP B. IP DHCP Server C. IPv4 OSPF Routing D. IPv4 EIGRP Routing E. IPv4 Route Redistribution F. IPv6 RIP Routing G. IPv6 OSPF Routing H. IPV4 and IPV6 Interoperability I. IPv4 layer 3 security Answer: G
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Share some CCNA Routing and Switching 200-125 exam questions and answers below. What is true about DTP? (Choose Three.) A. Layer 2 protocol B. Layer 3 protocol C. Proprietary protocol D. enabled by default E. disabled by default Answer: ACD
What are two benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses? (Choose two.) A. They are routed the same as public IP addresses. B. They are less costly than public IP addresses. C. They can be assigned to devices without Internet connections. D. They eliminate the necessity for NAT policies. E. They eliminate duplicate IP conflicts. Answer: BC
What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.) A. It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection. B. The connection is established before data is transmitted. C. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device. D. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP. E. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted. F. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection. Answer: BCF
Which two statements about IPv6 router advertisement messages are true? (Choose two.) A. They use ICMPv6 type 134. B. The advertised prefix length must be 64 bits. C. The advertised prefix length must be 48 bits. D. They are sourced from the configured IPv6 interface address. E. Their destination is always the link-local address of the neighboring node. Answer: AB
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged?(choose two) A. blocking B. learning C. discarding D. forwarding E. listening Answer: CD
How to create a trunk port and allow VLAN 20? (Choose Three.) A. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q B. switchport mode trunk C. switchport trunk allowed vlan 20 D. switchport trunk native vlan 20 Answer: ABC
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You create a 150 GB thick-provisioned volume. In that volume, you create a 50 GB LUN with space-reserve enabled. You create another 50 GB LUN with space-reserve disabled. Before any data is written to either LUN or a Snapshot is taken, how much space will be available in the volume for additional LUNs? A. 150 GB B. 100 GB C. 75 GB D. 50 GB Answer: B
When you use the volume snapshot autodelete command, what are three values for the commitment parameter? (Choose three.) A. disrupt B. volume C. snap-reserve D. try E. destroy Answer: A,D,E
When creating a data aggregate, what is the default minimum number of disks for RAID4 and RAID-DP? A. 5 for RAID4 and 9 for RAID-DP B. 4 for RAID4 and 7 for RAID-DP C. 3 for RAID4 and 5 for RAID-DP D. 2 for RAID4 and 3 for RAID-DP Answer: C
What is a NetApp storage system Ethernet port name? A. e0/1 B. g0/1 C. e0a D. eth0 Answer: C
What is the maximum number of nodes allowed in an FAS8000 series with a SAN configuration? A. 24 B. 8 C. 4 D. 2 Answer: B
You have created a storage virtual machine named SVM1 with a NetBIOS name of FILES1 and you have successfully joined the Active Directory domain. You have created a CIFS share called SHARE1 and have given read/write access to all users. Network connectivity has been verified. To which path should the users be mapping? A. \\SHARE1\FILES1 B. \\FILES1\SHARE1 C. \\SVM1\FILES1 D. \\FILES1\SVM1 Answer: B
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